I’m really intrigued by this statement you made:

However, had Jesus actually wanted to say that one must be baptized to be saved, He clearly could have simply stated, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is baptized and born of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” Further, if Jesus had made such a statement, He would have contradicted numerous other Bible passages that make it clear that salvation is by faith (John 3:16; John 3:36; Ephesians 2:8-9: Titus 3:5).

So, say Jesus had made a comment like, “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.” I guess he would have contradicted himself with such a statement, right? Oh, wait. He did say that!!! – Mark 16:16. You use Ephesians 2:8-9, among others, as a passage teaching that baptism is not necessary to salvation. However, that is a letter written to people who had been baptized twice! (cf. Acts 19:1-7). Notice also that Paul asked them if they received the Holy Spirit since they believed (Acts 19:2). He doesn’t say anything about baptism in that verse, just belief (cf. Jn. 3:16). But when they said they never even heard about the Holy Spirit, he knew there was something wrong with their baptism (Acts 19:3). Paul didn’t ask them had they been baptized. He knew if they were believers that they had been baptized. Why is that? Because one is not a believer in the biblical sense unless they have been baptized. It is because biblical faith is an obedient faith (Rom. 1:5; 16:26). One does not have an obedient faith until they have obeyed the commands of Scripture! How can a person say they have an obedient faith if they are actually arguing against something that Jesus explicitly stated to be necessary for salvation? (Mark 16:16; 1 Pet. 3:15; Acts 22:16; Rev. 1:5).

You say that “water” in Jn. 3:5 cannot be baptism because they were still under the Old Testament and baptism wasn’t required as yet. However, you must have overlooked the fact that John was preaching a baptism for remission of sins (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3). Whether the thief on the cross received this baptism or not, though I believe he did, is irrelevant because Jesus had power on earth to forgive sins (Matt. 9:6; Mark 2:10; Luke 5:24).

You say “water” is often used to refer to a “spiritual cleansing” that has nothing to do with actual water. However, I read in my Bible were Philip took the Ethiopian eunuch “down into the water” to baptize him (Acts 8:38). I guess that means they both “went down into” some kind of spiritual experience that cleansed the eunuch of his sins (cf. Acts 22:16).

I know it doesn’t really matter to you what I write here, and how ridiculous I make your feeble attempts at twisting the word of God look. But, I pray, it will be helpful to the readers in steering clear of false teachers, like you, who try to convince them the Bible doesn’t really mean what it says. I would say “nice try,” but it wasn’t.

Now, noone would know this better than yourself of course as a “gospel preacher.” I have been to Church of Christ congregations on several several several occasions, and not a single time have I heard a message on LOVE, BROTHERHOOD, WITNESSING. It has always been “Is the Baptist Church in the Bible?” “Why water baptism is essential.” accapella worship and why it’s used.” …. and etc …. Norm, you guys are the one always being forced to keep the wool pulled over your already few in number followers by constantly cramming this in their throat. I have honestly NEVER heard anything preached unless it is in crticism of others! even from your pulpit as I listen online. So, who is always having to defend their preconceived notions …? ….. I think its the false denomination of Church of Christ. Now, in dealing with this scripture I will be brief and hope someone coming along will see that you have again distorted the view of this verse.

Now, when first considering this passage, it is important to note that nowhere in the context of the passage is baptism even mentioned. While baptism is mentioned later in this chapter (John 3:22-30), that is in a totally different setting (Judea instead of Jerusalem) and at a different time from the discussion with Nicodemus. This is not to say Nicodemus was unfamiliar with baptism, either from the Jewish practice of baptizing Gentile converts to Judaism, or from John the Baptist’s ministry. However, simply reading these verses in context would give one no reason to assume Jesus was speaking of baptism, unless one was looking to read into the passage a preconceived idea or theology. To automatically read baptism into this verse simply because it mentions “water” is unwarranted.Those who hold baptism to be required for salvation point to “born of water” as evidence. As one person has put it, “Jesus describes it and tells him plainly how—by being born of water and the Spirit. This is a perfect description of baptism! Jesus could not have given a more detailed and accurate explanation of baptism.” However, had Jesus actually wanted to say that one must be baptized to be saved, He clearly could have simply stated, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is baptized and born of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” Further, if Jesus had made such a statement, He would have contradicted numerous other Bible passages that make it clear that salvation is by faith (John 3:16; John 3:36; Ephesians 2:8-9: Titus 3:5).

We should also not lose sight of the fact that when Jesus was speaking to Nicodemus, the ordinance of Christian baptism was not yet in effect. This important inconsistency in interpreting Scripture is seen when one asks those who believe baptism is required for salvation why the thief on the cross did not need to be baptized to be saved. A common reply to that question is: “The thief on the cross was still under the Old Covenant and therefore not subject to this baptism. He was saved just like anyone else under the Old Covenant.” So, in essence, the same people who say the thief did not need to be baptized because he was “under the Old Covenant” will use John 3:5 as “proof” that baptism is necessary for salvation. They insist that Jesus is telling Nicodemus that he must be baptized to be saved, even though he too was under the Old Covenant. If the thief on the cross was saved without being baptized (because he was under the Old Covenant), why would Jesus tell Nicodemus (who was also under the Old Covenant) that he needed to be baptized? So, what is this water I believe ..? “born of water and the Spirit” are both describing different aspects of the same spiritual birth, or of what it means to be “born again” or “born from above.” So, when Jesus told Nicodemus that he must “be born of water and the Spirit,” He was not referring to literal water (i.e. baptism or the amniotic fluid in the womb), but was referring to the need for spiritual cleansing or renewal. Throughout the Old Testament (Psalm 51:2,7; Ezekiel 36:25) and the New Testament (John 13:10; 15:3; 1 Corinthians 6:11; Hebrews 10:22), water is often used figuratively of spiritual cleansing or regeneration that is brought forth by the Holy Spirit, through the Word of God, at the moment of salvation (Ephesians 5:26; Titus 3:5). Anyway, this is a great study point and I appreciate any thoughts!

Is there a single solitary sentence anywhere in all of Scripture that even hints of God’s dissaproval of instrumental accompaniment to singing? …..

Why is instrumental music not allowed in worship when the definition of psalm (which you do allow) is a hymn set to instrumental music (see Strong’s Dictionary of the Greek New Testament, as well as any English dictionary)? Since psalms are included in a proper worship (Ephesians 5:19), shouldn’t instrumental music necessarily be used in worship to be obedient to Scripture? Is it being disobedient to Paul’s instruction by not using psalms correctly in the worship service? In other words, given the definition of psalm, by your own rules of “inclusion and exclusion,” doesn’t the Bible require instrumental music?

It seems to myself that the Church of Christ is desparately inconsistent in interpreting the Bible. If necessary to prove a point, the CoC calls on the Old Testament. Examples: In order to try to disprove Original Sin, you would probably call on Ezekiel 18:19-32. If you want to support patternism, you might call on Leviticus 10:1-2. Aside from both of the passages taken out of context to prove a point, why do you conveniently ignore the Old Testament passages about instrumental music? …. Norm, I am simply interested in the fact that the CoC does a bit of picking and choosing what they want. . . please help clarify this. Thanks.

Seriously, any questions for either myself or Richardson are most welcome.

Galatians 2:21 I do not frustrate the Grace ofGod: for if righteouness comes by the law,
Then Christ died in vain…

You are not saved by works, and if you think you are, and you are under the LAW,
and Jesus is of no effect to you. you are fallen from grace,

To me it is funny how they can except the idea of Adam’s Disobedience bring the curse
of Sin and Death into the world, making everyone sinners,
Romams 5:18-19
18)Therefore as by the offence(Dsobedience)of one (ADAM) judgment came upon all men to condemnation,

They are not so willing to except the finished work of the Cross,
2 Corinthians 5: 21 For he (God) has made him(Jesus Christ) sin for us, (Jesus) who knew
no sin: that we might be made the righteousnes of God in Him (Jesus)

This is the second half of Romans 5:18, Even so by the righteousnes of one(Jesus) The Free Gift (GRACE) and Free Gift of Righteouness came upon all men unto justification of life.

19) For as by one man’s (ADAM’S) disobedience, all were made sinners, so by the obedience of one(Jesus Christ) shall many be made righteouss.

Because of Adam we were born into a prision of sin, we can not do anything to get out..
Does not matter what Denomination you are, how many days you attend church, how many
times you have read the bible. It is not what we do that saves us, it is what Jesus did on
Calvary..

God is offering anyone that unmerited, unearned, undeserved Free Gift of GRACE, and Righteousness, Through Jesus Christ….

Ephisians 2:8
For it is by Grace we are saved through faith; and not of yourself,it is THE GIFT OF GOD..

Now I am in the prision of rigteousness, there was nothing on my own I could do to get,
in, now there is nothing I can do to get out,

Jesus paid for All Sin, I don’t think he missed one.. Past, present and future sin,
He is my High Priest,, God does not look at me to see if my sins are forgiven, he looks at the High Priest.. The Sin offering was good, The priest is alive at the right hand of God,
and I am still made righteous..

Hebrews 10:10 By the which (GOD’s) will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jeus Christ ONCE AND FOR ALL..

God does not examine us to forgive our sins, Jesus became our sin, an paid for them on the Cross..

If you are saying If I sin I lose my salvation, You are making sin more powerful than God’s
Grace..